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Thanks Hellonewhere, that was a very interesting read and I wasn't aware of this. It seems to indicate that at point of time of ilr application you have to be employed or self employed. Even if earnings criterion is satisfied but one is out of work just because of redundancy say a couple of days back, ilr will not be given,just because of potential that you may start taking benefits in future. I guess for OP it seems to imply it may be okay as long as earnings criterion is satisfied and business is active at point of application.Can someone pls confirm my understanding is correct?hellonewhere wrote:This is a bit outdated; but perhaps it sheds a bit of light
https://www.whatdotheyknow.com/request/ ... ming-53958
I'm just going to comment on the earnings related question you have raised. If applying for ILR as a T1G Migrant there is no requirement that you need to have the same earnings over the entire 5 year residence period.raju4u wrote: Do i need to meet £35k threshold for consecutive 5 years?
Thanks for the quick replies and your expert opinion. I have been economically active throughout 5 years and @hellonewhere i have not been taking dividends in the year i did not make profit.cs95tdg wrote:I'm just going to comment on the earnings related question you have raised. If applying for ILR as a T1G Migrant there is no requirement that you need to have the same earnings over the entire 5 year residence period.raju4u wrote: Do i need to meet £35k threshold for consecutive 5 years?
However, just as you would have done for your initial T1G and subsequent extension applications you will need to score the necessary points to apply for ILR, this includes claiming points for earnings over any consecutive 12 months during the 15 months immediately prior to your application (& also other sections where you are able to score points such as age, qualifications, UK experience etc...). The requirement is that you meet the total required points score along with the other criteria for ILR which are details under the corresponding immigration rules. I concur with how hellonewhere has explained the meaning of Economic activity over the 5 years. Others may comment further.
Independent to this, you should ensure that your tax affairs (HMRC) are in order prior to applying; as can be seen on this forum there are those who are now struggling as a result of not doing this.
I'd suggest you read the SET(O) form and guidance to understand the details along with the associated immigration rules. You appear to have sufficient time as your ILR is not due for while yet.
Immigration rules - 245AAA, 245CD https://www.gov.uk/government/uploads/s ... _final.pdf
This is how it happened, Initial visa applied on £35k requirement, profit of the business dividend + salary £36k approx, i got the visa and paid the tax on £35k in time. Then came the next year had a loss and i filed the tax returns as usual, my expenses were greater than the profits so it was not zero tax return it was just i had to bear more expenses than i earned. So hmrc gave me £2k back because of the loss. Yes i read all the links in detail they mention the standard requirements i am not decieving anyone i am just caught up in a situation which is little bit confusing. And it is a limited company and a retail shop business.hellonewhere wrote:@thanks cs95tdg
Just to be clear as due to the timing difference, the 2k difference was included in the 36k?
Sorry for all the questions but as cs95tdg mentioned, recently many applicants have been having issues, therefore, just want to be certain re the figures.
No you don't have to amend anything and there's no tax on loss.
You made a genuine loss and therefore you didn't have to pay any tax.
I assume that you have a company as you mentioned dividend - is that correct?
In the year that you incurred a loss, you had no dividend, therefore, no tax to pay, therefore nothing to amend, and I strongly advice against making a "fictional" figure just to pay tax.
I assume you filed a zero tax return ( can one do that? ) or informed HMRC that you had no income to declare therefore didn't file one ( I have done that )?. I also assume that you had an account filed at companies house and hmrc. Accounts and tax returns are two separate things. Sorry for all the questions.
What you did was a legal way of doing things. And HMRC paid you back because you can carry back and forward losses;
Here it explains more;
https://www.gov.uk/corporation-tax-calc ... ing-a-loss
I wouldn't worry in your place and also I strongly advice to go through the link that cs95tdg posted.
Don't be confused and don't panic; and no you are not deceiving anyone!raju4u wrote:This is how it happened, Initial visa applied on £35k requirement, profit of the business dividend + salary £36k approx, i got the visa and paid the tax on £35k in time. Then came the next year had a loss and i filed the tax returns as usual, my expenses were greater than the profits so it was not zero tax return it was just i had to bear more expenses than i earned. So hmrc gave me £2k back because of the loss. Yes i read all the links in detail they mention the standard requirements i am not decieving anyone i am just caught up in a situation which is little bit confusing. And it is a limited company and a retail shop business.hellonewhere wrote:@thanks cs95tdg
Just to be clear as due to the timing difference, the 2k difference was included in the 36k?
Sorry for all the questions but as cs95tdg mentioned, recently many applicants have been having issues, therefore, just want to be certain re the figures.
No you don't have to amend anything and there's no tax on loss.
You made a genuine loss and therefore you didn't have to pay any tax.
I assume that you have a company as you mentioned dividend - is that correct?
In the year that you incurred a loss, you had no dividend, therefore, no tax to pay, therefore nothing to amend, and I strongly advice against making a "fictional" figure just to pay tax.
I assume you filed a zero tax return ( can one do that? ) or informed HMRC that you had no income to declare therefore didn't file one ( I have done that )?. I also assume that you had an account filed at companies house and hmrc. Accounts and tax returns are two separate things. Sorry for all the questions.
What you did was a legal way of doing things. And HMRC paid you back because you can carry back and forward losses;
Here it explains more;
https://www.gov.uk/corporation-tax-calc ... ing-a-loss
I wouldn't worry in your place and also I strongly advice to go through the link that cs95tdg posted.
If the loss was carried back to the previous year it means the income got slashed from previous year but income is counted as of 12 months not 24 months, that is confusion for me.
now one thing i want to mention that when i login to my account on hmrc then my 2010 to 2011 income comes up as £35k and tax paid on their site appears accordingly. and the next year it shows that business gone in loss. So i don't know what to do. I will not have appeal right in case im refused for this reason. well just confused to be honest. thanks for your time and reply.