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Hello all,

Happy to be part of this great forum to share ideas and source for relevant info on UK Visa issues.

I am on Tier-1 General visa, registered as a limited company director. Please, can any one in the house share ideas on the numbers of days allowed for such a person outside the UK?

In the ''T1-General Guidance Rule'', there is a section which say....
"If you earned money in the UK for a period during which you remained overseas (eg. a company director drawing a UK salary but remaining based outside the UK) such earnings will be accepted".

With the above, is such a person (Director of a UK registered Limited company) still under the 180 days in every 12 calender month limit? I am actually looking at the the part saying....''remaining based outside the UK''.

Please, I will be glad to have some contributions on the above concern.


Thanks

Topsyno

Hi topsyno,

Welcome to the forum!

Calculating continuous period in the UK (page 19) - "No more than 180 whole days absence are allowed in any of the five, four, three or two consecutive 12 month periods, depending on the category, preceding the date of the application for indefinite leave to remain (ILR)."

MindTheGap

Thanks for your reply to my concern.

If one has to consider this extract from '''T1- General Guidance Rule'' that says:

"If you earned money in the UK for a period during which you remained overseas (eg. a company director drawing a UK salary but remaining based outside the UK, such earnings will be accepted".

So, what is the explanation of the line above?


Thanks


Tpsyno

topsyno wrote:Thanks for your reply to my concern.

If one has to consider this extract from '''T1- General Guidance Rule'' that says:

"If you earned money in the UK for a period during which you remained overseas (eg. a company director drawing a UK salary but remaining based outside the UK, such earnings will be accepted".

So, what is the explanation of the line above?


Thanks


Tpsyno

The extract "If you earned money in the UK for a period during which you remained overseas (eg. a company director drawing a UK salary but remaining based outside the UK, such earnings will be accepted" is correct. However these are two independent clauses. An applicant would still be required to meet the absence requirement.

MindTheGap

Appreciate your response.

......''remained overseas (eg. a company director drawing a UK salary but remaining based outside the UK...........is accepted" I agree it is a clause on its own from the explanation of the extract.

But, remember it is these days (remaining based overseas) that accumulates to my more than or less than 180 days as the case may be. The REMAIN BASED OVERSEAS/BASED OUTSIDE THE UK (example was made SPECIFICALLY to a UK COMPANY DIRECTOR).

From my understanding of the line...''REMAIN BASED OVERSEAS/OUTSIDE UK'', it means I can be outside of the UK notwithstanding my number of days outside (FOR A UK COMPANY DIRECTOR, DRAWAING UK SALARY) as long as my earnings are being drawn in the UK during these periods of absences.

Please, does anyone in the house have a contrary view to my understanding of ''REMAINING BASED OVERSEA/BASED OUTSIDE UK''?

I will appreciate comments/views on the above

Thanks to every one on this forum once again

Thanks


Topsyno