secret.simon wrote:Also, I believe (I could be wrong on this point) that as an EU citizen, not only do you not need leave under the UK Immigration Rules, but you are in fact ineligible for such leave. That means that when you became a Hungarian citizen, your Tier 2 leave ceased automatically and you would have been ineligible to renew it or reapply for it.
I believe that argument is almost completely wrong. At the simplest level, what law states that leave apparently granted to an EU citizen is null and void? I believe the argument is that
Immigration Rules Paragraph 5 wrote:Save where expressly indicated, these Rules do not apply to those persons who are entitled to enter or remain in the United Kingdom by virtue of the provisions of the 2006 EEA Regulations. But any person who is not entitled to rely on the provisions of those Regulations is covered by these Rules.
However, that would merely imply that the leave was granted outside the rules; it would remain valid.
Note also that family members may hold visitor's visas:
EEA family permit: EUN 2.1 wrote:If a family member who is travelling with, or is to join the EEA national in the UK requests a visit visa under the Immigration Rules, you should offer him (or her) the option of applying for a family permit under EC law free of charge.
There is no implication there that a visitor's visa would be invalid. Indeed, there may be cases where a visitor's visa is better than a family permit, e.g. quicker response time and no need to carry documents proving family relationships. Indeed, in theory, does a family permit allow a family to stay for up to 6 months? I can't find the evidence that in law it allows a visit of more than 3 months.
I also find it hard to believe that those with ILR when the Immigration (EEA) Regulations 2006 came in automatically lost it when they acquired permanent residence. I believe there are some rare cases where ILR might actually be more secure than permanent residence - e.g. the UK exiting the Free Movement regime!
Turning now to the OP's question, I believe the entire 5 years residence counts. That's based on two arguments. Firstly, the tenor of the arguments in the
Lassal judgement indicate that the point is that 5 years residence is enough to integrate a beneficiary of the Citizens' Directive. The second, is that the initial 3 years or thereabouts actually meet the following requirements:
EEA Regulations Schedule 6 Paragraph 8 wrote:(1) Any period of time during which an EEA national (“P”) resided in the United Kingdom in accordance with the conditions listed in sub-paragraphs (2) or (3) is to be taken into account for the purpose of calculating periods of residence in the United Kingdom in accordance with these Regulations.
(2) <snip>
(3) The condition in this paragraph is that P resided in the United Kingdom in circumstances where—
(a) P was a national of a State which at that time was not an EEA State;
(b) P had leave to enter or remain in the United Kingdom under the 1971 Act for the duration of P’s residence; and
(c) P would have been residing in the United Kingdom in accordance with these Regulations, had P’s State of origin been an EEA State at that time, and had these Regulations been in force.
(4) [effect of 2 year absences]
Note that 3(a) does not require that P's then state ever become an EEA state. I'm assuming that P was not stateless.
I have no idea as to whether the OP would meet the 5 year rule for settlement in the UK proposal for post-Brexit treatment of EEA nationals and their families.