Hi, i would be very grateful if somebody is able to help me with this query. Myself and my fiancé are in the process of preparing a fiancé visa application (she will be the applicant, and currently lives abroad in a non-EU country, I am a UK citizen living in the UK).
I notice that one of the conditions regarding suitable accommodation for the applicant is that (where applicable) the permission of the owner of the accommodation has been given.
I am a homeowner - my circumstances are that I am divorced, with decree absolute, and live in the ex-marital home and pay the mortgage entirely myself. My ex-wife is jointly on the mortgage (as well as me) and land registry ownership documents. I have checked and am told by solicitor she has no legal right to prevent my partner from living here. I am concerned however as to whether this will be a problem for the application, i.e. that the person reviewing the application would expect that her permission should be sought.
A financial resolution involving home sale or me buying out my ex-wife will take some time, however I can show that I have sufficient disposable income to meet the market rate for new rental or bought accommodation suitable for me and my fiancé when that happens. Is this something to worry about?
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