Ok hopefully my last question
My daughter was born in NZ in 1991. I never married her mother and was domiciled in NZ at the time of her birth. NZ scrapped legitimacy laws in 1970 and the UKBA legitimacy document states
1.3 An illegitimate child should be regarded, for the purposes of s.47(1) of the 1981 Act, as having been legitimated by the subsequent marriage of the parents if, by the law of the place in which the father was domiciled at the time of the marriage, the marriage can be regarded as having legitimated the child. Note, though, that s . 47(1) only refers to legitimation through subsequent parental marriage - it does not extend to those who are "legitimated" by means of legislation passed by another country (see, for example, 5.1.2 below). Where a child, born illegitimate of a British citizen father, has been legitimated by operation of law rather than by the subsequent marriage of his or parents, it may be appropriate to consider registration under s.3(1) of the
Act.
5.1.2 A child born out of wedlock in New Zealand after 1 January 1970
should be regarded as legitimate, and would have a claim to
British citizenship by descent through the father, if both parents
were domiciled in New Zealand at the time of the child's birth.
Is it me or do these two paragraphs contradict each other. Does operation of law mean change in law..
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