FLR(M) to SET(M)

[SGP2103]

Hi All,

Apologies if this question has been asked and answered many times before (I know it has been but I'm still confused!) and this is not the right forum.

I recently obtained my ILR under the 10 year long stay and was previously on PSW. My wife was a PSW dependent since 17 June 2011 and her visa expired on the 17 May 2013 . If I understand correctly, she was 1 month short of completing the 2 years period to qualify for ILR given that she was granted leave to remain before the 9th of July 2012?

We've therefore sent her FLR(M) by post on Friday (17th). However, some people (including lawyers) are now advising us to wait for the reference number and payment to be taken from HO and then switch the application directly to SET(M) given that by that time she will be within the 28 days period and qualify for ILR.

Is this correct? What's the risk?

Please advise.

Many thanks,

SGP