Post
by enduringdifficulties » Tue Aug 26, 2014 6:08 pm
Thanks for your reply.
So here's the thing. I've been married for over 4 years, I move to Poland in 2010 and received 2 residence cards on the basis of national laws, each valid for 1 year. The third time I applied for a new card in January 2013, the application for residence is supposed to be processed within 1-2 months but it has always taken them a minimum of 3-4 months to process my applications. As for the application that I lodged in January 2013, it took them 6 months to process it and refuse me residence on the basis of giving false testimony and that there are no psychological, physical and economical ties between me and my wife, that I'm still married only for the purpose of legalizing my stay in poland (which is clearly a breach of article 8 of ECHR to say that but that's a different story). I appealed that decision and it was upheld by the higher instance 2 months after. Now here's the rediculous thing, as long as you haven't picked up the decision upholding the previous one, you are legal, once you pick it up, you become illegal. So, I picked that decision from the post office which I entered as a legal alien, and the moment I left the post office I had become an illegal alien in the eyes of the polish law (I keep trying to find an EU directive to cross-reference that again because this is definitely a breach of some EU directive, how can one not have a few days to leave the country legally or file a lawsuit or regulate their stay on some other basis). Anyhow, I applied again, but the second time I had both my testimony and my wife's manipulated, luckily, I had a recorder and had my interview recorded which is a proof of the case officer having manipulated my testimony only for the sake of accusing me of having gotten married for the purpose of circumventing their laws and that my marriage is a marriage of convenience ! My testimony about the last time I saw my wife was changed from "yesterday" to "before yesterday", my wife's testimony about my 2013 trips was manipulated or she simply forgot, these were 2 reasons I was accused of having a marriage of convenience "His wife didn't know about his 2013 trips, He said he saw last before yesterday while she said yesterday" ! Luckily I have more than 10 messages I exchanged with my wife during those trips and she pretty well knew about them.
Back to the point, so on September 2013 I had become illegaly staying in poland, yet, I cannot be deported because I have a wife who's Polish. It's been a year that I'm unemployed, collection companies are over my head and I'm stuck in Poland waiting for my lawsuit to be processed in court.
Recently I applied for residence on the basis of respecting family life which they suspended, I appealed that and the case was sent to be reprocessed, it turns out that even if I get this residence I still wouldn't have the right to work, so I don't see what's the purpose of this residence if one can't work and support themselves and their family. Let alone that I paid taxes for 2 years but I can't apply for unemployment benefits because I have no residence status.
For the reasons I mentioned above, I had decided to apply for a Schengen visa to 1) Become legal in Poland eventhough I never considered myself staying illegaly here as I didn't overstay any residence permit or visa, I didn't enter the country without a visa nor did I miss any deadlines. So considering that poland is a Schengen country I figured that by getting a Schengen visa on the basis of directive 2004/38/EC would legalize my stay in this country.
2)I'm no longer stuck in poland, I can go somewhere with my wife within or outside of Schengen area but as well as I could travel on my own.
What you said is important, proving that one is going to be joining their spouse, I just don't understand how one would prove that their spouse is waiting for them, we can imagine a case where a non-EU is going to Italy on the 20th and his wife is joining him on the 22nd, no proof here otherthan one's word, nothing else to vouch for them. While the visa is granted on the basis of one being a family member and is travelling with their spouse or going to be joining them, after the visa has been granted there's no way to prove that one is joing their spouse when they are only visiting. In my understanding, I have a Schengen visa and I can travel on my own from/to Schengen and it goes without saying that one's spouse is in the Schengen area.
So I got my Beneloux MEV and I plan on travelling with my wife as well as travelling without my wife with the understanding that my Schengen visa is valid for all Schengen countries include poland my wife's country. I'm definitely going to have the marriage certificate at hand but I don't see how I would have to prove that my wife is somewhere, I can go to Spain as a first point of entry while my wife is in poland and I wouldn't see that as fraud because sooner or later I'm still joing my wife in some Schengen country whether her country or a different one. One thing is puzzling me theoratically, if Poland were to be my first Schengen point of entry would me being covered by the directive become an issue to enter Poland because she's not exercising her right to freedom of movement or it wouldn't matter because that's still a Schengen country, if that were to be a problem one could always enter from a different country and from that country go to Poland.
Let me know what you think.
Cheers