Hi Guys
Would really appreciate your advice about something that's been bothering me.
My wife, a British national, has been working in the UK since May 2016. She bought shares of the same company as she's employed in and earning above the income threshold. She's taxed on the salary she receives. No income has been received on the shares, hence no tax charged.
When applying for the spouse visa, would she be considered as salaried? Would disclosing the investment be a plus point?
Apologies if this thread has already been discussed. I've gone through individual threads based on this but not an open thread so didn't want to bombard someone else's thread with my questions.
Many thanks
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