I think the OP's question is related to the text of Section 7.
methhyden wrote:Section 7 - Consent to the application
The consent of both parents is required for applications made under section 3(5) and 4D and is expected for all other applications.
As the consent of both parents is only expected for all applications than those under Sections 3(5) and 4D, does it need to be signified?
The answer is Yes.
The difference between the two is that the consent of both parents is a statutory requirement (over which the Home Office has no control or discretion) under Sections 3(5) and 4D. If the consent of either parent is missing, the application is rejected straightaway, after deducting the fees.
In all other cases, the consent of the two parents is expected by the Home Office, but the Home Office can look into the application if the absence of the consent is justified, such as if one of the parents is away from the UK due to urgent family matters, etc. It still requires you to justify the lack of consent, but that in itself would be unlikely to be a cause of refusing the application.
I am not a lawyer or immigration advisor. My statements/comments do not constitute legal advice. E&OE. Please do not PM me for advice.