Hello,
First of all, I would like to thank everyone who contributed to making these forums so informative and helpful. I have a question that doesn't seem to be covered anywhere else and would be grateful for an answer.
My husband is in full-time employment in the UK on a Tier 2 visa and has been for a couple of years. He earns above the £18,600 financial requirement and can provide all the necessary documents to prove so under the FLR(M) rules. Is his salaried income on its own enough evidence considering that he is the applicant?
I am asking because I am a self-employed British artist (registered with HMRC) and the process of proving my annual income through self-employment seems to be so distressing, particularly since I do my taxes myself. So will my husband's proof of income be okay on its own? Please help.
Thank you very much for taking the time to read this and I would appreciate any assistance you can provide.
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